A 40-year-old man comes to the office due to anal discharge and pruritus. The patient had an episode of severe anal pain several months ago, which resolved spontaneously after 2 days. Since then, he has had an intermittent, foul-smelling discharge on his undergarments and occasional pain during defecation. The patient has had no abdominal pain, diarrhea, or blood in the stool. He has no prior medical conditions and takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows a soft and nontender abdomen. The perianal skin appears inflamed. There is an indurated pustule-like lesion close to the anal verge. Digital rectal examination reveals mild tenderness but no mass. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Anorectal manometry
B) Colonoscopy
C) Empiric antibiotics
D) Stool test for ova and parasites
E) Surgical evaluation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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