A 53-year-old woman comes to the office due to progressive exertional dyspnea over the past several weeks. The patient's abdominal girth has also increased during this time, which has been associated with discomfort and early satiety. Medical history is significant for bacterial endocarditis due to intravenous drug use. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, pulse is 85/min, and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination shows no jugular venous distension or hepatojugular reflux. Chest is clear to auscultation. The abdomen is distended and nontender. Both shifting dullness and a fluid wave are present. Hepatosplenomegaly is present. There is trace bilateral lower extremity edema. Which of the following best explains this patient's presentation?
A) Chronic liver disease
B) Constrictive pericarditis
C) Nephrotic syndrome
D) Ovarian cancer
E) Right heart failure
Correct Answer:
Verified
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