A 45-year-old woman comes to the office for follow-up. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus complicated by nephropathy and end-stage renal disease and underwent kidney transplant from an unrelated donor 6 months ago. She is adherent with immunosuppressive therapy and regularly follows up with the transplant nephrologist. The patient reports good urine output and no pain at the transplant site but has had tremors in both upper limbs since the surgery. She has had no headaches, dizziness, or falls. The patient takes insulin and lately has been requiring a higher dosage despite no significant dietary changes. Temperature is 36.1 C (97 F) , blood pressure is 152/90 mm Hg, pulse is 78/min, and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination shows bilateral hand tremor, which is most prominent during action. There is no rigidity; muscle strength, deep tendon reflexes, finger-nose testing, and gait are normal. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following immunosuppression medications is most likely responsible for this patient's current findings?
A) Antithymocyte globulin
B) Azathioprine
C) Mycophenolate
D) Prednisone
E) Tacrolimus
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q808: A gynecologic oncology research institute isolates a
Q809: A group of researchers conducted a randomized,
Q810: A large-scale randomized, double-blinded clinical trial was
Q811: A case-control study was conducted to evaluate
Q812: A prospective cohort study is conducted to
Q814: Two studies were conducted on different samples
Q815: A new multidrug chemotherapy regimen significantly prolongs
Q816: In a selected study of bronchogenic cancer,
Q817: A study was conducted to assess the
Q818: A 32-year-old woman comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents