A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic due to palpitations that have been especially prominent over the past 2 days. Medical history is significant for myocardial infarction and heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. Medications include aspirin, digoxin, furosemide, sacubitril-valsartan, metoprolol, and atorvastatin. Blood pressure is 126/74 mm Hg, pulse is 102/min, and respirations are 15/min. Physical examination reveals no murmurs or extra heart sounds. The lungs are clear to auscultation. No peripheral edema is present. ECG shows atrial tachycardia with second-degree atrioventricular block. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient's presentation?
A) Accessory conduction pathway
B) Age-related cardiomyocyte fibrosis
C) Ischemic myocardial scarring
D) Left atrial enlargement
E) Medication adverse effect
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q869: A 65-year-old man comes to the physician
Q870: A 63-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q871: A 64-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q872: A 45-year-old man who recently immigrated to
Q873: A 35-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q875: A 74-year-old woman comes to the urgent
Q876: A 47-year-old woman is evaluated for exertional
Q877: A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic
Q878: A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic
Q879: A 38-year-old woman comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents