Solved

A 68-Year-Old Man Comes to the Clinic Due to Palpitations

Question 874

Multiple Choice

A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic due to palpitations that have been especially prominent over the past 2 days.  Medical history is significant for myocardial infarction and heart failure with reduced ejection fraction.  Medications include aspirin, digoxin, furosemide, sacubitril-valsartan, metoprolol, and atorvastatin.  Blood pressure is 126/74 mm Hg, pulse is 102/min, and respirations are 15/min.  Physical examination reveals no murmurs or extra heart sounds.  The lungs are clear to auscultation.  No peripheral edema is present.  ECG shows atrial tachycardia with second-degree atrioventricular block.  Which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient's presentation?


A) Accessory conduction pathway
B) Age-related cardiomyocyte fibrosis
C) Ischemic myocardial scarring
D) Left atrial enlargement
E) Medication adverse effect

Correct Answer:

verifed

Verified

Unlock this answer now
Get Access to more Verified Answers free of charge

Related Questions

Unlock this Answer For Free Now!

View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions

qr-code

Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks

upload documents

Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents