A 40-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to a 6-hour history of palpitations. She describes "fluttering in the chest" that has never happened before. In addition, over the last few months, the patient has experienced anxiety, fatigue, and a 7-kg (15-lb) weight loss. Her medical history is unremarkable, and she takes no medications. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Her blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 125/min and irregular. Examination reveals lid lag and a fine tremor in the outstretched hands. No murmurs are audible, and the lungs are clear to auscultation. ECG shows atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Adenosine
B) Amiodarone
C) Digoxin
D) Flecainide
E) Ibutilide
F) Propranolol
G) Synchronized cardioversion
H) Verapamil
Correct Answer:
Verified
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