A 34-year-old woman with a history of idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy comes to the emergency department due to progressive weight gain and dyspnea on exertion. She did not take her medications over the recent holiday period. Blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg and pulse is 90/min and regular. Oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. On physical examination, jugular venous distension is observed with significant pedal edema. There are bibasilar crackles. Cardiac auscultation reveals a grade 3/6 holosystolic murmur best heard at the apex. The patient is admitted to the hospital and started on appropriate therapy with intravenous diuretics. Four days later, her symptoms have improved and she is ready for discharge. Weight has decreased by 5 kg (11 lb) since admission. On examination, the lungs are clear on auscultation and no heart murmurs are heard. Which of the following best explains the heart murmur heard in this patient on admission?
A) Dynamic left ventricular outflow obstruction
B) Increased flow across the right ventricular outflow tract
C) Increased flow through a patent foramen ovale
D) Left ventricular papillary muscle displacement
E) Prolapse of the posterior mitral leaflet
Correct Answer:
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