A 32-year-old man comes to the office for follow-up of elevated blood pressure. A week ago, he was seen in the emergency department for nasal bleeding and found to be hypertensive. The patient has no significant medical history. Both parents are alive; his father was diagnosed with coronary artery disease at age 55, and his mother has hypertension and diabetes. Blood pressure is 150/95 mm Hg, and repeat blood pressure measurements demonstrate similar readings. Pulse is 96/min and regular. BMI is 27 kg/m2. On examination, no heart murmurs are present. There is no thyromegaly or lymph node enlargement. A fine hand tremor is present. No skin rashes are noted. Laboratory results show a serum TSH of 1.2 µU/mL, normal serum electrolytes, and creatinine of 0.7 mg/dL. Which of the following is the best next step in evaluating this patient?
A) Duplex ultrasound of renal arteries
B) In-laboratory polysomnography
C) Plasma fractionated metanephrines
D) Serum aldosterone level
E) Urine drug screen
Correct Answer:
Verified
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