A 34-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a rash and pruritus. She had a sore throat for several days and took some prescription medication (amoxicillin) left over from 1 year ago. The itchy rash developed about 20-30 minutes after she took the first pill 4 hours ago. She has no dyspnea, dizziness, nausea, diarrhea, or abdominal cramps. She has no prior history of skin rash or allergies. Her temperature is 36.7° C (98° F) , blood pressure is 124/82 mm Hg, and pulse is 80/min. Oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical examination shows multiple urticaria and mild excoriations over the upper and lower extremities and upper body. The tonsils are mildly erythematous but without exudates or swelling. There is no lymph node enlargement. Lungs are clear on auscultation without wheezes. There is no stridor. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Administer intravenous glucocorticoids
B) Administer intramuscular epinephrine
C) Recommend aspirin with the next dose of amoxicillin
D) Send for IgM antibodies against Epstein-Barr virus
E) Treat with antihistamine
Correct Answer:
Verified
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