A 26-year-old woman comes to the office due to a skin lesion on her thigh that appeared approximately 3 weeks ago. The patient does not have a history of similar lesions. She has mild pruritus but no fever, chills, or pain. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and takes no medication. She is sexually active. Examination of the leg and a close-up of the lesion are shown in the exhibit.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Complete blood count with differential
B) Liquid nitrogen
C) Punch biopsy
D) Serum rapid plasmin reagin testing
E) Topical acyclovir
F) Topical triamcinolone
Correct Answer:
Verified
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