A 30-year-old man comes to the office due to a rash. For the last 3 weeks, he has had a slowly enlarging, pruritic rash at the left groin. The patient had a similar rash 2 months ago that resolved after topical treatment with miconazole; he has since been careful to dry his skin thoroughly after bathing. Medical history is unremarkable. The patient has 1 long-term sexual partner and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 24 kg/m2. Examination shows an annular plaque with a scaly border in the left groin; scrotal skin is normal. Potassium hydroxide microscopy of skin scrapings from the lesion reveals segmented hyphae. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Examine interdigital skin of toes
B) Obtain fungal blood cultures
C) Order serum immunoglobulin level
D) Prescribe hydrocortisone cream
E) Prescribe topical selenium sulfide
Correct Answer:
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