A 37-year-old man comes to his primary care physician for the evaluation of slightly pruritic skin lesions on his penis and around his anus. He has no fever, malaise, or anorexia. He is sexually active with multiple male partners and uses condoms occasionally. The patient has never been tested for HIV or other sexually transmitted diseases. He has no drug allergies. Examination shows skin-colored, verrucous, papilliform lesions as shown in the image below.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's skin condition?
A) Anatomical variation
B) Herpes simplex virus
C) Human papillomavirus
D) Poxvirus
E) Treponema pallidum
Correct Answer:
Verified
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