A 35-year-old man comes to the office after a year of weakness, fatigue, and weight loss. He has experienced reduced appetite and intermittent diarrhea. The patient had no improvement after several sessions with a clinical psychologist, who suggested evaluation for a physiological cause of his symptoms. His medical history is unremarkable, and he takes no regularly scheduled medications. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Family history is notable for hypothyroidism (sister) . Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 106/66 mm Hg, pulse is 94/min, and respirations are 14/min. On physical examination, the patient does not appear to be in acute distress. His neck shows no thyromegaly or lymphadenopathy. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal, and the abdomen is soft with normal bowel sounds and no organomegaly. Motor strength and deep tendon reflexes are normal and symmetric. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) 24-hour urine free cortisol
B) ACTH stimulation test
C) Insulin-induced hypoglycemia test
D) Intravenous hydrocortisone
E) Low-dose overnight dexamethasone suppression test
Correct Answer:
Verified
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