A 28-year-old man returns to the emergency department due to abdominal cramps and diarrhea. The patient has a 3-year history of ulcerative colitis and initially presented 2 weeks ago with abdominal pain and bloody stools. He was hospitalized and underwent colonoscopy, which revealed active colitis in the rectum, sigmoid, and descending colon. His symptoms gradually improved with medical treatment, and he was discharged on prednisone and 5-aminosalicylic acid therapy. The patient's symptoms had resolved completely, but he has now had 2 days of mild abdominal cramps and voluminous watery diarrhea despite taking medications as prescribed. He has no other medical problems. Temperature is 37.9 C (100.2 F) , blood pressure is 124/76 mm Hg, pulse is 78/min, and respirations are 12/min. No orthostatic changes are present. There is mild generalized abdominal tenderness without rebound tenderness or guarding. Bowel sounds are normoactive. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Abdominal CT scan with contrast
B) Repeat colonoscopy with biopsy
C) Stool fat measurement
D) Stool testing for Clostridioides difficile toxins
E) Tumor necrosis factor inhibitor therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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