A 45-year-old previously healthy man is brought to the emergency department due to headaches and confusion for 2 days. He has no focal weakness or sensory symptoms. The patient has no significant past medical history and does not take any medications. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 37.9 C (100.2 F) , blood pressure is 140/86 mm Hg, pulse is 96/min, and respirations are 16/min. Mild icterus is present. His neck is supple and without rigidity. Cardiopulmonary and abdominal examinations are normal. Neurologic examination shows no focal deficits. Laboratory results are as follows:
A peripheral blood smear shows many fragmented red blood cells. The prothrombin time is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A) Cryoprecipitate infusion
B) Hemodialysis
C) MRI of the brain
D) Packed red blood cell transfusion
E) Plasma exchange
F) Platelet transfusion
G) Urine drug screen
H) Whole blood transfusion
Correct Answer:
Verified
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