A 32-year-old man comes to the physician with a 2-day history of fever, headache, malaise, and myalgias. Family members say that he seems slightly confused. He recalls getting a tick bite 2 weeks ago while walking through the woods in Arkansas. His temperature is 39 C (102 F) , blood pressure is 125/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 100/min. His neck is supple and there is no lymphadenopathy. The oropharynx is clear. Cardiovascular examination is unremarkable. The abdomen is soft and nontender. There is no rash. There are no focal neurologic deficits. Laboratory results are as follows:
What is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Bone marrow biopsy
B) Ceftriaxone
C) Chloramphenicol
D) Doxycycline
E) Erythromycin
F) Hepatitis serology
G) Lyme serology
Correct Answer:
Verified
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