A 77-year-old man comes to the physician with a 2-week history of fevers and generalized weakness. His other medical history includes a hospitalization for pyelonephritis requiring intravenous antibiotics 3 months ago, an episode of rheumatic fever as a child, and Hodgkin's lymphoma treated with chemotherapy 15 years ago. He also recently underwent cystoscopy for evaluation of persistent dysuria. His temperature is 37.8 C (100 F) , blood pressure is 150/86 mm Hg, pulse is 98/min, and respirations are 16/min. The patient appears slightly diaphoretic. There is a new II/VI holosystolic murmur at the apex and tender erythematous lesions affecting several fingertips. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following bacteria is most likely responsible for this patient's present illness?
A) Coxiella burnetii
B) Enterococci
C) Staphylococcus epidermidis
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) Viridans streptococci
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q1263: A 42-year-old man comes to the office
Q1264: A 35-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q1265: A 22-year-old man comes to the urgent
Q1266: Which of the following antifungal agents can
Q1267: A 32-year-old woman comes to the hospital
Q1269: A 19-year-old woman comes to the office
Q1270: A 34-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q1271: A 26-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q1272: A 42-year-old man comes to the office
Q1273: A 47-year-old African American farmer from Mississippi
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents