A 30-year-old man comes to the office for evaluation of 2 months of lower-extremity swelling and skin lesions. He has no shortness of breath, fever, night sweats, or abdominal pain. He has had some weight loss but is unable to quantify the exact amount. The patient is an ex-intravenous drug user and was hospitalized 3 years ago for upper-extremity cellulitis. Three months ago, he went to an urgent care clinic for white patches in his mouth. His temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 132/78 mm Hg, and pulse is 92/min. His BMI is 22 kg/m2. Skin examination of the groin region is shown below.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Condylomata acuminata
B) Kaposi sarcoma
C) Leukocytoclastic vasculitis
D) Malignant melanoma
E) Neurofibromatosis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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