A 42-year-old man comes to the office due to a nonpruritic, nonpainful skin lesion on the left upper arm that began 2 months ago. He has also had tingling and numbness of the left fingers. The patient has no medical history and does not take any medications. He emigrated from Southeast Asia to Connecticut a year ago. Temperature is 36.6 C (97.8 F) , blood pressure is 126/82 mm Hg, and pulse is 74/min. Skin examination shows a 4-cm, well-circumscribed, hypopigmented patch on the left upper arm with no sensation to pinprick. The ulnar nerve is thickened and tender at the left elbow. Touch and pain sensation is absent in the left ulnar nerve distribution. Which of the following is most likely to confirm the diagnosis in this patient?
A) Anti-Borrelia burgdorferi antibody assay
B) KOH preparation of skin scrapings
C) Nerve conduction studies
D) Skin biopsy from the edge of the lesion
E) Treponemal serologic testing
F) Tuberculin skin testing
Correct Answer:
Verified
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