A 65-year-old man comes to the office due to a week of low-grade fever and dull pain in his right foot. He developed a small ulcer on his right foot 2 months ago that slowly worsened and never healed. He does not recall any precipitating trauma. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, coronary artery disease, and peripheral artery disease. He smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 35 years but quit 5 years ago. Temperature is 38.3 C (101 F) , blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. Physical examination shows a 2x2 cm ulcer on the plantar surface of the right forefoot surrounded by a halo of erythema and edema. There is no visible bone at the base of the ulcer, and metal probing does not contact bone. Pedal pulses are decreased bilaterally. Right foot x-ray reveals cortical erosion of the first metatarsal. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism for bone infection in this patient?
A) Monomicrobial infection by contiguous spread
B) Monomicrobial infection by hematogenous spread
C) Monomicrobial infection by lymphatic spread
D) Polymicrobial infection by contiguous spread
E) Polymicrobial infection by hematogenous spread
Correct Answer:
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