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A 62-Year-Old Man Is Brought to the Hospital Due to Altered

Question 1312

Multiple Choice

A 62-year-old man is brought to the hospital due to altered mental status.  He has had 4 days of headaches, fever, myalgia, and chills.  Medical history is significant for hypertension and a transient ischemic attack.  The patient takes aspirin, amlodipine, and simvastatin.  He works as horse trainer on a farm in Texas.  Temperature is 38.1 C (100.6 F) , blood pressure is 108/68 mm Hg, and pulse is 98/min.  On examination, the patient is drowsy.  There is no neck stiffness.  The lungs are clear to auscultation, and heart sounds are normal.  No significant lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly is present.  There is a petechial rash over the upper and lower extremities.  Neurologic examination is nonfocal.  Laboratory results are as follows: A 62-year-old man is brought to the hospital due to altered mental status.  He has had 4 days of headaches, fever, myalgia, and chills.  Medical history is significant for hypertension and a transient ischemic attack.  The patient takes aspirin, amlodipine, and simvastatin.  He works as horse trainer on a farm in Texas.  Temperature is 38.1 C (100.6 F) , blood pressure is 108/68 mm Hg, and pulse is 98/min.  On examination, the patient is drowsy.  There is no neck stiffness.  The lungs are clear to auscultation, and heart sounds are normal.  No significant lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly is present.  There is a petechial rash over the upper and lower extremities.  Neurologic examination is nonfocal.  Laboratory results are as follows:   What is the best next step in management? A) Bone marrow biopsy B) Doxycycline C) Hypertonic saline D) Plasmapheresis E) Prednisone What is the best next step in management?


A) Bone marrow biopsy
B) Doxycycline
C) Hypertonic saline
D) Plasmapheresis
E) Prednisone

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