A 62-year-old man is brought to the hospital due to altered mental status. He has had 4 days of headaches, fever, myalgia, and chills. Medical history is significant for hypertension and a transient ischemic attack. The patient takes aspirin, amlodipine, and simvastatin. He works as horse trainer on a farm in Texas. Temperature is 38.1 C (100.6 F) , blood pressure is 108/68 mm Hg, and pulse is 98/min. On examination, the patient is drowsy. There is no neck stiffness. The lungs are clear to auscultation, and heart sounds are normal. No significant lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly is present. There is a petechial rash over the upper and lower extremities. Neurologic examination is nonfocal. Laboratory results are as follows:
What is the best next step in management?
A) Bone marrow biopsy
B) Doxycycline
C) Hypertonic saline
D) Plasmapheresis
E) Prednisone
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q1307: An 18-year-old woman is brought to the
Q1308: A 48-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q1309: A 24-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q1310: A 41-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q1311: A 23-year-old man comes to the office
Q1313: A 38-year-old man comes to the office
Q1314: A 35-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q1315: A 31-year-old man is brought to the
Q1316: A 41-year-old woman comes to clinic due
Q1317: A 22-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents