A 23-year-old man comes to the office due to a genital lesion. Two weeks ago, he noticed a small bump on the shaft of his penis that grew before ulcerating. The lesion is nonpainful, and the patient has had no fever or other skin lesions. He has never had similar symptoms. The patient has no chronic medical conditions. He recently began a new sexual relationship, and his use of condoms has been inconsistent. Vital signs are within normal limits. Genital examination shows a 2-cm ulcer on the midshaft of the penis with raised, indurated margins and a smooth base. Palpation does not elicit pain, and no exudate is present. No additional skin lesions are found, and oral examination is normal. Mild, bilateral, nontender inguinal lymphadenopathy is present. Testing for serum VDRL and HIV is negative. Which of the following is most likely to yield a diagnosis in this patient?
A) Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption
B) Herpes simplex PCR of lesion
C) Lymph node aspiration
D) Pathergy test
E) Ulcer biopsy and culture
Correct Answer:
Verified
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