A 24-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to a few hours of fever with rigors, headache, and myalgias. While at an urgent care center last night, he was diagnosed with syphilis and received a dose of intramuscular benzathine penicillin G. The patient has a history of HIV infection, and a recent CD4 count was 540/mm3. He is not currently taking antiretroviral therapy and takes no other medications. He continues to have unprotected intercourse with several partners despite counseling. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 38 C (100.4 F) , blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, and pulse is 110/min. The patient is diaphoretic and appears uncomfortable. A diffuse, faint, macular rash involving the palms and soles is present. Genital examination shows a nontender ulcer with induration and several enlarged inguinal lymph nodes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current condition?
A) Anaphylactic reaction to penicillin
B) Coinfection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Disease progression due to resistance
D) Posttreatment immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome
E) Rapid lysis of the spirochetes
Correct Answer:
Verified
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