A 28-year-old man comes to the office due to abnormal movements of his arm and face over the last week. The patient has had 1- to 2-minute episodes of jerking and twitching of the left arm and left side of the face. He has also had daily headaches for a few weeks that are often associated with nausea. The patient was recently diagnosed with HIV and started antiretroviral therapy 2 months ago. At that time, his CD4 count was 46/mm3. He has a history of intravenous heroin use but recently started a methadone program. Temperature is 37.8 C (100 F) , blood pressure is 124/82 mm Hg, and pulse is 76/min. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal with no murmur. Left arm motor strength is 4/5, and deep tendon reflexes are 3+. An MRI of the brain reveals several ring-enhancing lesions at the gray-white matter junction and basal ganglia. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A) Albendazole
B) Amphotericin B and flucytosine
C) Clarithromycin and ethambutol
D) Ganciclovir
E) Stereotactic brain biopsy
F) Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine
G) Vancomycin and ceftriaxone
Correct Answer:
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