A 54-year-old man comes to the office due to 2 days of fever, chills, and perineal pain. He also has had frequent urges to urinate and pain on micturition but no penile discharge or testicular pain. The patient is not sexually active. He has no chronic medical problems and takes no medications. Temperature is 37.8 C (100 F) , blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 94/min. Physical examination shows a circumcised penis with no urethral discharge. The testes are normal. Rectal examination reveals an edematous, tense, and tender prostate. Laboratory results are as follows:
Dipstick urinalysis is positive for leukocyte esterase and nitrites. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) CT scan of the pelvis
B) Cystoscopy
C) Surgical exploration
D) Urethral catheterization
E) Urine Gram stain and culture
F) Urine testing for chlamydia and gonorrhea
Correct Answer:
Verified
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