A 64-year-old man comes to the office for evaluation of low mood and anxiety that began 2 months ago. The patient says, "I'm sad and anxious but I can't explain why. I just have this feeling that something bad is going to happen to me." He says that his coworkers have noticed he seems more reserved than usual. The patient has been skipping lunch due to a decreased appetite and has lost 9 kg (20 lb) in the last few months. He continues to enjoy reading mystery novels and has no difficulty falling or remaining asleep. The patient formerly smoked tobacco, with a 20-pack-year history, but he does not use alcohol or illicit drugs. Medical history includes recently diagnosed diabetes mellitus. Vital signs are within normal limits. BMI is 19 kg/m2. Physical examination is unremarkable. The patient is thin and appears anxious. He reports no suicidal ideation, hallucinations, or delusions. TSH level is 4.0 µU/mL. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A) Brain MRI
B) CT of the abdomen
C) Electroconvulsive therapy
D) Mirtazapine
E) Paroxetine
Correct Answer:
Verified
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