A 72-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to 2 days of increasing shortness of breath. He has been recovering from an upper respiratory infection that started 4 days ago. The patient has been drinking plenty of water and taking ibuprofen for headache and muscle aches. Medical history is significant for congestive heart failure, coronary artery disease, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. On examination, temperature is 38 C (100.4 F) , blood pressure is 130/84 mm Hg, pulse is 104/min, and respirations are 22/min. Oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Bilateral crackles are present in both lower lobes. No extremity edema is present. Chest x-ray reveals bilateral infiltrates. The patient is given ceftriaxone and azithromycin and one dose of intravenous furosemide. The next day, his dyspnea improved markedly. Repeat chest x-ray reveals marked decrease in bilateral infiltrates. What is the most likely cause of this patient's acute presentation?
A) Alveolar atelectasis
B) Heart failure exacerbation
C) Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
D) Mycoplasma pneumonia
E) Pneumococcal pneumonia
F) Viral pneumonia
Correct Answer:
Verified
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