A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to fever, chills, and a productive cough for the past 3 days. He also has shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain that is worse with deep breathing. His other medical problems include coronary artery disease, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hyperlipidemia. The patient's medications include low-dose aspirin, atorvastatin, metformin, and sitagliptin. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. His temperature is 39.2 C (102.5 F) , blood pressure is 95/60 mm Hg, pulse is 112/min, and respirations are 24/min. Oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. Examination shows dry mucous membranes. Laboratory results are as follows:
Chest x-ray reveals a right lower-lobe infiltrate. Blood cultures are obtained and intravenous fluids and antibiotics are administered. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Discontinue aspirin
B) Discontinue atorvastatin
C) Discontinue metformin
D) Start intravenous insulin infusion
E) Start lisinopril
F) Start zoledronic acid
Correct Answer:
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