A 40-year-old man comes to the physician because of a two-week history of fatigue, lower extremity edema, and dark urine. He has no history of serious illnesses. He takes no medications. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. His blood pressure is 132/83 mm Hg and pulse is 84/min. Physical examination shows symmetric pitting edema of lower extremities. Laboratory studies show a serum creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows 4+ proteinuria and microhematuria. Electron microscopy of the specimen obtained from kidney biopsy shows dense deposits within glomerular basement membrane. Immunofluorescence microscopy is positive for C3, not immunoglobulins. Which of the following is the most likely pathophysiologic mechanism that explains this patient's condition?
A) Anti-GBM antibodies
B) Circulating immune complexes
C) Persistent activation of the alternative complement pathway
D) Cell-mediated injury
E) Non-immunologic damage
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q1498: A 50-year-old man with a long history
Q1499: A 38-year-old woman is brought to the
Q1500: A 20-year-old man is found to have
Q1501: A 70-year-old woman is brought to the
Q1502: A 42-year-old man is found unconscious in
Q1504: A 32-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q1505: A 56-year-old diabetic male is brought to the emergency
Q1506: A 55-year-old man comes to the office
Q1507: A 32-year-old woman is brought to the
Q1508: A 26-year-old man comes to the emergency
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents