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A 40-Year-Old Man Comes to the Physician Because of a Two-Week

Question 1503

Multiple Choice

A 40-year-old man comes to the physician because of a two-week history of fatigue, lower extremity edema, and dark urine.  He has no history of serious illnesses.  He takes no medications.  He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs.  His blood pressure is 132/83 mm Hg and pulse is 84/min.  Physical examination shows symmetric pitting edema of lower extremities.  Laboratory studies show a serum creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL.  Urinalysis shows 4+ proteinuria and microhematuria.  Electron microscopy of the specimen obtained from kidney biopsy shows dense deposits within glomerular basement membrane.  Immunofluorescence microscopy is positive for C3, not immunoglobulins.  Which of the following is the most likely pathophysiologic mechanism that explains this patient's condition?


A) Anti-GBM antibodies
B) Circulating immune complexes
C) Persistent activation of the alternative complement pathway
D) Cell-mediated injury
E) Non-immunologic damage

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