A 44-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2, comes to the office due to intermittent loss of urine over the last 3 months. Five years ago, she had midurethral sling surgery for stress incontinence that resolved her leakage of urine until recently. Prior to the midurethral sling, the patient's urinary leaking occurred during the day with laughing and jogging. Now, she is leaking unrelated to laughing or exercise and must get up to go to the bathroom throughout the night. The patient has tried Kegel exercises and having a regular bathroom schedule, but she is still leaking urine and often cannot make it to the bathroom in time. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. Physical examination shows a slight bulge at the anterior vaginal wall. Urinalysis is normal. Postvoid residual volume is 50 mL. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for this patient's urinary symptoms?
A) Antimuscarinic therapy
B) Cholinergic agonist
C) Continence pessary
D) Repeat midurethral sling
E) Vaginal estrogen
Correct Answer:
Verified
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