A 64-year-old man comes to the office due to increasing pain in the right groin for the past several months. The pain increases with activity, is relieved with rest, and sometimes radiates to the upper thigh. The patient has no history of trauma or falls. There is no associated fever, weight loss, or change in appetite. He has a history of lumbar disk herniation but has no back pain currently. Medical history is notable for type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Vital signs are normal. Height is 168 cm (5 ft 5 in) and weight is 95 kg (210 lb) . BMI is 34 kg/m2. Examination shows pain on passive internal rotation of the right hip, but there is no focal tenderness on palpation of the groin and hip region. Reflexes are 2+ in the lower extremities symmetrically, and there are no sensory deficits. Muscle bulk, tone, and power are normal. Dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are 2+ in both legs. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's hip pain?
A) Aortoiliac vascular occlusion
B) Cutaneous nerve compression
C) Degenerative joint disease
D) Disruption of bone vasculature
E) Inflammation of the trochanteric bursa
F) Referred pain from the lumbosacral spine
Correct Answer:
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