A 33-year-old African American woman comes to the office due to skin lesions and pain in her ankles for a week. She has had no cough, sore throat, shortness of breath, abdominal pain, or bowel symptoms. She reports no recent travel or illness. The patient has no other significant medical history and takes no medications. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. She has no history of sexually transmitted diseases and has been married to a monogamous partner for the past 8 years. Her mother was diagnosed with ovarian cancer at age 65. Temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F) and blood pressure is 126/76 mm Hg. On examination, the patient has multiple tender pink to reddish nodules below the knee, as shown in the exhibit.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Antinuclear antibodies
B) Biopsy of skin lesions
C) Chest x-ray
D) Colonoscopy and random biopsies
E) CT scan of the abdomen
F) HIV testing
G) Urethral and rectal swabs
Correct Answer:
Verified
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