A 62-year-old woman comes to the office due to a weeklong history of brief episodes of sharp chest pain that worsen with deep inspiration. She has had no cough or dyspnea but has had fatigue and stiffness and pain in the hands and knees. Medical history is significant for obesity, hypertension, and nonischemic cardiomyopathy with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40%. She has a history of intolerance to angiotensin system inhibitor therapy. Medications include carvedilol, furosemide, hydralazine, and isosorbide mononitrate. Her medications were adjusted 6 months ago. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 37.8 C (100 F) , blood pressure is 134/78 mm Hg, and pulse is 74/min and regular. Physical examination shows nondistended jugular veins and no heart murmurs. Lung auscultation reveals no crackles, but an inspiratory rub is present. There is moderate swelling and tenderness of the hand and knee joints bilaterally. No rash is present. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current symptoms?
A) Drug adverse effects
B) Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
C) Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy
D) Polyarticular gout
E) Thromboembolism
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q1580: A 55-year-old woman comes to the office
Q1581: A 68-year-old man is brought to the
Q1582: A 76-year-old woman comes to the office
Q1583: A 49-year-old woman comes to the office
Q1584: A 44-year-old white male presents with a
Q1586: A 46-year-old woman comes to the office
Q1587: A 23-year-old previously healthy woman comes to
Q1588: A 30-year-old man comes to the office
Q1589: A 34-year-old woman comes to the clinic
Q1590: A 45-year-old woman comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents