A 58-year-old man with a history of chronic renal insufficiency and schizophrenia comes to the emergency department with chest pain. A 12-lead ECG shows ST elevations in leads II, III, and aVF. The patient's troponin and CK-MB levels are elevated. A cardiology consult is called and the patient is prepared for emergency percutaneous coronary intervention. The risks and benefits of the procedure, including the risk of contrast-induced renal failure, are explained to the patient. He shows an understanding of his condition, the benefits of percutaneous coronary intervention, and the risks of not performing the procedure. However, despite continued persuasion, he refuses any procedure that might lead to renal failure. On mental status examination, the patient is alert and oriented to person, place, and time. His mood is anxious and his affect is flat. He says that he prefers to live alone, "because you can't trust people not to steal your things." The patient hears voices calling his name daily. He has no suicidal ideation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Administer antipsychotic medication and conduct an informed consent discussion in an hour
B) Perform the procedure as the patient has a life-threatening emergency
C) Perform the procedure as the patient is psychotic and lacks capacity
D) Respect the patient's decision and treat with medication only
E) Seek a second opinion from another cardiologist
F) Seek consent from a family member acting as a surrogate decision maker
Correct Answer:
Verified
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