A 56-year-old man with a prolonged history of hypertension and medication nonadherence comes to the emergency department with abrupt-onset, severe, tearing back pain. Blood pressure is 240/130 mm Hg, and CT angiography reveals descending aortic dissection originating at the left subclavian artery takeoff and extending to the iliac arteries. Intravenous infusion of labetalol and nitroprusside are initiated, and the patient is admitted for further management. In the intensive care unit, the patient states that the pain has improved, but he is unable to move the lower extremities. Blood pressure is now 110/60 mm Hg, and pulse is 56/min. Physical examination shows normal heart and lung sounds and a distended urinary bladder. Neurological examination shows normal cranial nerves and upper extremity examination. There is weakness of bilateral lower extremities with decreased deep tendon reflexes. The patient is unable to sense crude touch and pain in the lower extremities, but vibration sensation is intact. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current neurological findings?
A) Carotid artery occlusion
B) Compressive lumbar myelopathy
C) Global cerebral hypoperfusion
D) Thoracic spinal cord ischemia
E) Vertebral artery dissection
Correct Answer:
Verified
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