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A 60-Year-Old Man Comes to the Office Due to Right-Sided

Question 1656

Multiple Choice

A 60-year-old man comes to the office due to right-sided neck and shoulder pain.  The pain worsens with neck movement and is associated with numbness in his forearm.  Over the past 2 years, he has had several episodes of similar symptoms that improved with rest and ibuprofen.  The patient has no history of neck or shoulder trauma.  He smokes a pack of cigarettes daily and has used injection drugs in the past.  Vital signs are within normal limits.  Physical examination shows limited neck rotation and lateral bending.  There is decreased pinprick sensation on the posterior aspect of the right forearm but no muscle weakness.  Triceps reflex is normal.  Left upper and bilateral lower extremity examination show no other abnormalities.  A plain radiograph of the cervical spine is ordered.  This patient's symptoms are most likely associated with which of the following radiographic findings?


A) Atlantoaxial subluxation
B) Compression fracture
C) Facet joint osteophytes
D) Focal osteolytic lesions
E) Odontoid process fracture
F) Vertebral body squaring

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