A 54-year-old woman comes to the office due to unsteady gait. The patient's legs have felt "rubbery," and she fell once while walking in the dark several weeks ago. She has had no headache, vision loss, focal weakness, or back pain. The patient has also had irritability and crying spells, which she attributes to menopause. She has a 6-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes metformin. The patient has had remarkable weight loss following various diets, and her hemoglobin A1c levels have been below 7% over the past year. Blood pressure is 124/68 mm Hg and pulse is 66/min with no orthostatic changes. BMI is 26 kg/m2. Physical examination shows normal pupillary reflexes and funduscopy. Muscle strength in the lower extremities is normal. Bilateral plantar reflexes are upgoing. When the patient is instructed to stand with the feet together and eyes closed, she sways from side to side. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) CT scan of the lumbosacral spine
B) Duloxetine therapy
C) Gadolinium-enhanced MRI of the brain
D) Serum vitamin B12 level
E) Thyroid function studies
Correct Answer:
Verified
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