A 63-year-old man is brought to the office by his daughter due to recurrent falls. According to his daughter, the patient has lost his balance and fallen several times over the past 6 months. He has not sustained serious injuries. She has also noticed some "shaking" of his right hand that is most apparent at rest. The patient has lived alone since his wife died 5 years ago and still shops, cooks, and cleans independently. Blood pressure is 141/68 mm Hg and pulse is 72/min. Neurologic examination shows mild rigidity of the limb muscles that is most prominent on the right side with a slow, shuffling gait. The patient is prescribed medication for his symptoms but returns to the office 4 weeks later reporting "disturbing visions of strangers creeping around corners of his apartment." On examination, he is alert and scores 27/30 on the Montreal Cognitive Assessment (normal: ≥26) . Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's new symptoms?
A) COMT inhibitor pharmacotherapy
B) Dementia with Lewy bodies
C) Dopamine agonist pharmacotherapy
D) Frontotemporal dementia
E) MAO-B inhibitor pharmacotherapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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