A 36-year-old previously healthy man comes to the office due to neck pain. Two days ago, the patient was lifting weights when he suddenly experienced neck and upper back pain. He has had constant dull pain and intermittent sharp pain with neck movements that radiates to his left hand. He also reports a tingling sensation in the left hand but has had no weakness or bladder or bowel dysfunction. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows cervical paraspinal muscle spasm. There is mildly decreased sensation to pinprick in the left fourth and fifth digits. There are no other sensory deficits and no upper or lower extremity muscle weakness is present. Deep tendon reflexes are normal throughout. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Cervical spine x-ray
B) Epidural corticosteroid injection
C) MRI of the cervical spine
D) Provocative activity avoidance and NSAIDs
E) Urgent neurosurgical evaluation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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