A 24-year-old man comes to the office due to vision disturbances. The patient has a history of ankylosing spondylitis and experienced severe pain and redness of the eyes a month ago. Evaluation at that time showed acute anterior uveitis and prednisolone eye drops were prescribed, which the patient still uses. The eye symptoms resolved within a week of treatment, but over the past several days the patient has had blurry vision and has needed more light to read. He has also experienced glare while driving at night. The patient has no other medical conditions, and his only other prescribed medication is naproxen as needed. Vital signs are within normal limits. Ocular examination shows nonerythematous conjunctiva, clear corneas, and no hypopyon or opacities of the lenses. Funduscopic examination is normal. The remainder of the physical examination, including neurologic examination, shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Fluorescein eye stain
B) Lumbar puncture
C) MRI of the brain
D) No further intervention
E) Tonometry
Correct Answer:
Verified
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