A 31-year-old man comes to the office for follow-up. Four weeks ago, the patient was diagnosed with sinusitis-associated frontal lobe abscess. Culture of the purulent material obtained by stereotactic needle aspiration grew multiple bacteria, including several species of Streptococcus and Bacteroides. He is receiving ceftriaxone and metronidazole therapy and his prior symptoms of headache and fever have resolved. The patient began experiencing numbness and a burning sensation in his toes several days ago that has progressed to involve the proximal feet. He also reports similar symptoms in his fingertips but has had no muscle weakness or back pain. He has no other chronic medical conditions and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows loss of pain, touch, and vibration sensations in the feet and bilateral fingers. Deep tendon reflexes and motor strength are normal. Blood cell counts and serum chemistry studies are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's current symptoms?
A) Discontinue metronidazole
B) Obtain serum protein electrophoresis
C) Order MRI of the spine
D) Perform lumbar puncture
Correct Answer:
Verified
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