A 54-year-old man comes to the office due to recurrent falls. During ambulation, the patient prominently flexes his right hip and knee and the right foot slaps to the floor with each step. Romberg sign is absent. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this gait abnormality?
A) Basal ganglia lesion
B) Cerebellar dysfunction
C) Common peroneal neuropathy
D) Corticospinal tract lesion
E) Damage to frontal lobe cortico-cortical white matter tracts
F) Sensory neuropathy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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