A 52-year-old man with a history of schizoaffective disorder is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a lower extremity cellulitis. The patient does not appear to have any other acute medical illness. He is continued on his home medications-lithium, risperidone, and sertraline-and cephalosporin therapy is initiated to treat his infection. During the hospital stay, the patient also receives ibuprofen and acetaminophen for pain and lorazepam as needed for anxiety and insomnia. His infection improves over the next 10-14 days, but prior to discharge, he develops repeated episodes of vomiting and diarrhea. At the same time, the patient becomes tremulous and uncoordinated, which makes it difficult for him to walk without falling. In addition, he seems confused. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows fasciculations and bilateral tremor. Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused this patient's new symptoms?
A) Acetaminophen
B) Lithium
C) Lorazepam
D) Risperidone
E) Sertraline
Correct Answer:
Verified
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