A 12-month-old girl is brought to the office due to diarrhea. Two weeks ago, the girl had fever, vomiting, and diarrhea with poor oral intake that lasted for 3 days, after which the fever and vomiting resolved and the diarrhea improved. The girl then resumed her regular diet, including whole milk with varied meals. She subsequently developed worsening diarrhea with no fever or vomiting. The stools occur about 3 times only during the day and are bulky and malodorous but without blood or mucus. The girl does not take any medications. Vital signs are normal. On examination, she is alert and well hydrated. Her abdomen is distended and hypertympanic. There is mild diffuse tenderness to palpation, but no rebound, guarding, or masses. Stool for occult blood is negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her current symptoms?
A) Bile salt malabsorption
B) Carbohydrate malabsorption
C) Clostridioides difficile infection
D) Milk protein-induced allergic proctocolitis
E) Relapse of viral gastroenteritis
Correct Answer:
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