A 13-year-old girl is brought to the clinic for a routine health maintenance examination. She recently immigrated from Southeast Asia and has no known health concerns. Medical history includes a febrile illness a year ago that was followed by development of pain and swelling in the knees and wrists. At that time, the patient was treated with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications, and her symptoms resolved. Her last physical examination, 2 years ago, was prior to her immigration and was normal. She plays soccer and swims every weekend. Blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg and pulse is 70/min and regular. Cardiac examination reveals a diminished S1 and a grade 2/6, high-pitched, holosystolic murmur that is loudest at the apex and radiates to the left axilla. The lungs are clear to auscultation. The abdomen is soft, nontender, and has no hepatosplenomegaly. Echocardiogram demonstrates mild mitral regurgitation. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A) Methotrexate
B) Metoprolol
C) Penicillin
D) Warfarin
E) No therapy indicated
Correct Answer:
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