A 5-year-old girl is brought to the clinic due to abdominal cramping and diarrhea. The diarrhea started 3 days ago and was initially watery but now contains visible mucus. The patient attends a small day care where several other children have recently developed similar diarrhea. Temperature is 38.3 C (101 F) , blood pressure is 100/62 mm Hg, and pulse is 98/min. On examination, she appears uncomfortable but is appropriately answering questions and is interactive. The mouth is slightly dry. Heart and lung examinations are normal. The abdomen is diffusely tender to palpation without hepatosplenomegaly. A stool sample is positive for occult blood, and a stool culture is also obtained. The patient tolerates fluids she receives in the office. In addition to encouraging increased fluid intake, which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
A) Abdominal ultrasound
B) Air contrast enema
C) Antibiotic therapy
D) Bismuth subsalicylate
E) Close follow-up only
F) Loperamide
Correct Answer:
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