A 6-year-old girl is brought to the office for evaluation of pubic hair development. The girl's mother reports first noticing axillary hair a few weeks ago while dressing her for school. The patient has also had breast and pubic hair development but no vaginal bleeding, headaches, emesis, or visual disturbances. She has no medical conditions and takes no daily medications. The patient had 2 long bone fractures at ages 4 and 5. Family history is unremarkable. Physical examination reveals 2 large hyperpigmented macules with irregular contours on the left side of her back and chest. Axillae have secondary hair; there is no freckling. Bilateral breasts have budding and enlargement of the areola. There is coarse, dark pubic hair along the labia and the pubic junction. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Adrenal tumor
B) McCune-Albright syndrome
C) Neurofibromatosis type 1
D) Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
E) Sturge-Weber syndrome
F) Tuberous sclerosis
Correct Answer:
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