A 73-year-old woman is seen in the hospital following emergent left transmetatarsal amputation. The patient has a history of chronic, nonhealing foot ulcers due to poorly controlled diabetes mellitus and peripheral artery disease and was admitted 2 days ago with wet gangrene and cellulitis. At the time of admission, she had fever, hypotension, and altered mental status, and consent for amputation was provided by her son who is her designated surrogate decision maker. Following surgery, the patient has been stabilized with intravenous antibiotics, opioid pain medications, and appropriate thromboembolism prophylaxis. When the vascular surgeon explains his recommendation for left lower extremity angiography and possible revascularization to prevent further amputation, the patient refuses the procedures. She says, "I'm too old for another operation. I didn't want surgery the first time, and I don't want it now." Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Ask the patient's son for consent to perform the procedure
B) Assess the patient for depressive symptoms
C) Check to see if the patient has a living will
D) Determine if the patient has capacity to refuse the procedure
E) Document the patient's refusal and do not perform the procedure
F) Obtain two-physician consent to perform the procedure
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q2: A 39-year-old woman is hospitalized for appendicitis
Q3: A 57-year-old woman comes to the office
Q4: A 76-year-old man is brought to the
Q5: A 55-year-old woman comes to the office
Q6: A 56-year-old woman comes to the office
Q8: A 59-year-old woman comes to the office
Q9: A 19-year-old woman comes to the university
Q10: A 32-year-old man comes to the office
Q11: A 40-year-old man with a history of
Q12: A 22-year-old man comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents