A 25-year-old woman comes to the office due to abdominal bloating, headache, fatigue, weight gain, mood swings, and decreased libido. She says, "The symptoms last about a week and then seem to subside, but they always come back again." During these episodes, her appetite increases and she craves sweet and salty foods. The episodes have been occurring for years. The patient has a history of depression as a teenager that responded well to cognitive-behavioral therapy and a family history of bipolar disorder in a maternal uncle. She has no recent change in sleep pattern or interest in activities, or feelings of hopelessness or guilt. She takes no medications and physical examination is normal. Complete blood count, serum chemistries, pregnancy test, and TSH levels are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Cognitive-behavioral therapy
B) Fluoxetine
C) Gluten-free diet
D) Luteal-phase-only fluoxetine
E) Menstrual diary
F) Valproate
G) Vitamin B6
Correct Answer:
Verified
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