A 27-year-old woman at 8 weeks gestation comes to the office for her first prenatal visit. This is her first pregnancy; it was unplanned. The patient lives alone and works part-time as a restaurant server. She has a 5-year history of intravenous heroin use and says, "I've tried to quit before, but it was so hard. I know drugs are bad for the baby, so I want to try again." The patient uses heroin daily. Her last injection was 6 hours ago. She has no other chronic medical conditions and no known drug allergies. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 126/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. Physical examination is notable only for needle marks on the patient's extremities. Transvaginal ultrasonography reveals an intrauterine gestation and a heart rate of 150/min. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Advise discontinuing opioid use without pharmacologic intervention
B) Begin naltrexone treatment immediately
C) Initiate methadone maintenance treatment
D) Prescribe clonidine to treat withdrawal symptoms
E) Suggest that the patient consider terminating the pregnancy
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q82: A 28-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks gestation
Q83: A 16-year-old boy comes to the office
Q84: A 30-month-old girl is brought to the
Q85: A 27-year-old woman is brought to the
Q86: A 12-year-old girl is brought to the
Q88: A 13-year-old boy is brought to the
Q89: A 4-year-old girl is brought to the
Q90: A 75-year-old-man is admitted to hospice care
Q91: A 7-year-old boy is brought to the
Q92: A 4-year-old boy is brought to the
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents