A 38-year-old woman comes to the office for follow-up of major depressive disorder. She was first seen 2 weeks ago for low mood and irritability, loss of interest, difficulty falling and staying asleep, decreased appetite, and poor concentration at work. At that time, she was started on a therapeutic dosage of escitalopram and weekly psychotherapy. The patient had mild nausea for several days after starting the medication but is now tolerating it without difficulty. She says, "I'm afraid the medication isn't working as well anymore. At first my sleep and appetite were better, but for the past few days I feel like I might be slipping back to where I started." The patient reports that she is stressed because her husband is away on business this week and her father was recently hospitalized for a stroke. Mental status examination shows a mildly depressed mood and sad affect. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacological management?
A) Add amitriptyline at bedtime
B) Add aripiprazole
C) Discontinue escitalopram and start paroxetine
D) Discontinue escitalopram and start trazodone
E) Increase dose of escitalopram
F) Maintain current dose of escitalopram
Correct Answer:
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